In The Spirit On The Lord’s Day (rev.1:9-10a) By Dr. Eli Lizorkin-eyzenberg And Prof. Peter Shirokov

1:9 I, John, your brother and the one who shares with you in the persecution, kingdom, and endurance that are in Jesus, was on the island called Patmos because of the word of God and the testimony about Jesus.

Once God Almighty spoke his very brief words, John identified himself as the next speaker. In a similar way to Rev. 22:6-15, the speaker switches between the Almighty God and Jesus as we see in the following verse (Rev. 22:16).

Here John also identifies the historic circumstances during which he saw the vision and authored the letter in obedience to the Lord’s command. While we would have liked to know the exact year John wrote the Revelation, he thought it sufficient to only write of his exile.

His exile was on the island of Patmos, where the Roman government was known to send political prisoners. Scholars hypothesize that the time that John was on Patmos fits best to either approximately 95 CE during the reign of Emperor Domitian or to 68-69 CE during the reign of Emperor Nero, when persecutions of the Christ-followers were frequent and intense.

1:10a I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s Day…

There are three interpretive options here.

First, the Lord’s Day could be the Sabbath. It would make sense to speak of God’s day, the Sabbath (Shabbat), in this way. What works against this interpretation is that we never see this term used to signify the Sabbath. In addition, if indeed the day of the week was the Sabbath as opposed to other days, it is not clear why this would be important.

Second, this option is the traditional option, identifying the Lord’s Day as the day of his Resurrection – the first day of the Israelite week – Sunday. This theory suffers similar problems.

Never is the first of the week referred to as the Lord’s Day prior to this alleged instance. If this is in fact the case (that this does refer to the first day of the Israelite week) it is not at all clear why John felt compelled to tell his readers/hearers about it.

Third, in our view, this option is far more likely. The day of the Lord is the End Times day of reckoning and judgment that the Hebrew Prophets often spoke about. The phrase “the Day of the Lord/Lord’s Day” is used many times in the Hebrew Bible (Is. 2:12; 13:6-9; Ezek. 13:5, 30:3; Joel 1:15; 2:1-31; 3:14; Amos 5:18-20; Obadiah 15; Zephaniah 1:7-14; Zechariah 14:1; Malachi 4:5). As we read in Malachi 4:5-6: “Look, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the great and terrible day of the Lord arrives. He will encourage fathers and their children to return to me, so that I will not come and strike the earth with judgment.”

Thus, John’s reference notifies the reader that while he is writing from a particular historic location during a particular time in history, the perspective he seeks to communicate to his hearers is rooted in the eschatological reality of the future Day of the Lord. Just as in the case of the Hebrew prophets of the Bible, John was able to speak to the present from the dual perspective of the past (the covenant) and the future (the consummation of the covenant and restoration of all things).


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  1. David morgan

    Thanks Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg, for helping to clarify a point in my present study of the Hazon. Just to say I have recently signed up with the Israel institute of bible studies, and looking forward to studying with you all, shalom.

  2. Tom Wood

    Having just read all the comments I am amazed that this kind of thing is still happening. Please ask ourselves ” how is this going to change the world. Where does this bring hope when everything is falling apart?”. Please look at Jesus when he took the Pharisees apart for straining at gnats when the world needs hope and direction. Let’s get a mindset where we can set aside the trivia and focus on the important. John gives a place and a time. What place and what time is only important for those who have taken their eyes off of Jesus central message”.

  3. gustavo vargas angel

    To who may concern:
    Before goig in a civil war,because this arguments, please remember:
    PSALM 90:4 ” because one thousand days in front of your eyes, are like the day of yesterday, which has passed now” Shalom aleikum.

    1. Drs. Charles van den Berg

      “But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
      The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. “2Pe 3:8-9

  4. Drs. Charles van den Berg

    The Hebrew word for day, יוֺם (jom), sometimes means a longer period of time, as is the case with the “Lord’s day”. The Prophet Joel shows that the day of the Lord is from multiple days, similarly does Zephaniah.
    And why is that always translated with “”on”? In the Hebrew this can also be translated with “in”. That is why it or should it perhaps be translated with: “in the day of Lord”. John was moved to or in the time period that is called the “Lord’s day”, the end time, and he was allowed to oversee there God’s plans.

  5. Francene Mullings

    Wonderful insight on the day of The Lord. The scriptures are a great reference as well.

    1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

      Thank you, Francene. Welcome to our forum. Dr. Eli

  6. Brad Thompson

    From the “Complete Jewish Bible by David H. Stern he translates Isaiah 58: 13 as, “If you hold back your foot on Shabbat from pursuing your own interests on my holy day; if you call Shabbat a delight, Adonai’s holy day, worth honoring; then honor it by not doing your usual things.” This certainly is talking about the Shabbat and Mr. Stern does use “Adonai’s holy day.” However, since Rev 1:10 is in greek and Isaiah 58:13 is in Hebrew I’m not sure on how the verses cross??? Something to think about….

  7. Brad Thompson

    In Rev 1:10 there is the word “KuriakE” or Kuriakos (koo-ree-ak-os’). Doesn’t this word imply belonging to Adonai or God? The next word is “Hemera” (hay-mer’-ah) which implies the time between sunset and sunrise or Day. Wouldn’t this mean Adonai’s Day or Sabbath? A possible connection to the meaning of Rev 10 might be Isaiah 58:13; in the beginning of Isaiah 58: 13 there are words that have Sabbath as the root and is referring to a day belonging to the “Holy One” of God (IEUE); ADONAI’S Day or Sabbath. Of course this doesn’t exclude any of the other Sabbath’s ordained by God. Isaiah 58: 13-14 also provides a possible answer why John said what he said; which is to say “doing God’s Will.

  8. Prof. Peter Shirokov

    Thanks so much for the lively discussions and for many contributions that everyone is making to the dialogue. The issues of 3 days and resurrection timing are interesting and complicated but really not what this post is about. Perhaps we will have a post on this very matter in the future. I, personally appreciate everyone’s opinions on the interpretation of the phrase “Lord’s day” It is really helpful to gauge the public opinion.

  9. Bill Hawkins

    Additionally, if one is to accept the idea that only parts of 24 hr periods are being counted, it is apparent to me the Jewish leadership recognized Jesus meant a 72 hour period. To support this I go to Math 27:64. The leaders wee concerned that there be no ability of His supporters to steal the body, claim He rose from the dead, and start a revolution. They specifically asked for the sepulcher to be sealed and guarded for three days. This clearly implies they understood the claim to be 72 hours, not parts of a day.

    1. Edward Siders

      BILL thanks for your coment . but i have a question for all of us . i will not write it out but give the scriptures . 11 tim 2 : 15 -18 . the question is why did Paul say that the ressurrection did not happen . WAS he lieing to us or was he telling the truth ?

      1. alfredo

        Edward. What resurrection do you think Paul is writing about in 2 Tim 2:15-18 ???

        1. Edward Siders

          Alfredo ————– Peter is correct and i respect him . I would love to answer your question but the time is not right

  10. Bill Hawkins

    What is not generally accepted by normalized Christianity is that Sabbath mentioned that Christ had to be buried previous to, was a high day. John 19:31 clearly calls out the burial had to be accomplished prior the start of the Sabbath, “(for that sabbath day was a high day)”. Further, in Luke 23:56, we are told that the women prepared spices etc, and then rested on the sabbath ‘according to the commandment.” The high days are not one of the commandments, but the weekly sabbath is.

  11. gustavo vargas angel

    Dear Dr.:
    I have been reading carefully the whole ideas about, and may be here, one more: Jesus died on friday(as Luke says) at hour 6th; He was in the grave that night,Nr.1, (because shabbat was coming, the question is : which one?) then, the shabbat night(Nr.2), and after all presumably the day and night of sunday,so wymen came to Him on monday morning, to finish the burial rites. The main question, as I can see, is not if Jesus died on sunday or wednesday, but when will He return to us? I think the harvest is on time. Best regards.

  12. Neil Mc Fadzen

    Excellent article in which I totally endorse with the following remarks. The Lord’s Day is most certainly eschatological which introduces the book of Revelation which has as its objective “to keep alive the flame of faith in difficult times and to maintain hope in the Coming of the Day of the Lord and of the Kingdom of God”. To be more precise the Lord’s Day began in October, 1914 CE with the expiration of the Gentile Times according to Daniel and Luke. The Lord’s Day belonging to Jesus Christ as the Messiah can properly be said to introduce the OT’s ‘Day of the Lord’ or Day of Jehovah which could conclude the Lord’s Day at the final battle of Armageddon.

    scholar JW

  13. Ann Johnstone

    Regarding the expression “three days and three nights”, this may throw light on your quandry:

    The term, “three days and three nights”, as used in the Bible:
    – is absolutely equivalent to phrases such as: “after three days”, “on the third day”, three days later”;
    – does not require three literal days and three literal nights;
    – does not require 72 literal hours.
    Hence a Friday crucifixion at 3 PM with at Sunday resurrection at 6 AM would have been considered three days and three nights by the Jewish people of the day.

    Some differences between the more logical, linear, Graeco-Roman thinking and its Middle Eastern counterpart, can lead to linguistic problems such as this.

    1. Edward Siders

      ANN ———– thanks this i have considered . however my question and statement was based on what G-D said when he divided the day from night . To me he did it not man . as you can see i took 3 pm and went from there to complete the 72 hrs did i make a mistake ?

      1. Edward Siders

        Ann ——– i may not know much , but what i do know is what GOD did in the begging its still true to day . HE never made a mistate and went back and corrected it . HE called 24 hrs. a day . and to this day we still have 24 hrs. in a day . no matter what someone else did or says . i bare you no hard feeling . But all i have said is a absolute fact

    2. Bill Hawkins

      Ann, the scripture in question is Math 12:40, “For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly…” From this I refer back to Jonah 1:17 and look up the terminology used by the author and cross to Strong’s, which is #3117, ‘yowm’, which is also the same word used in Gen to indicate the daylight portion of a 24 hour period. Further, the word in Jonah for night is Strong’s 3915, ‘layil’ meaning ‘a twist, (away from light), or night’. This is further indication to me and others the words ‘day’ & ‘night’ used in the scrolls Christ was taught from, and which He quoted from in Math 12, specifically indicated a 72 hour period. Therefore He also meant a 72 hr period.

      1. David Gibbons

        Bill, I admit that I am not a Hebrew scholar, but your post does illustrate a couple of translation errors/concerns:

        1) Strong does NOT give “the” translation” for a word, it gives what is known as a “gloss”. A gloss is, in effect, a first pass at a translation, a sort of memory aid to the word. All words have a range of meanings, which is often obscured by systems such as Strongs.

        2) just because a word can mean something, and does in one context, does not mean that it always means that, or does in a different context. Thus, as I pointed out earlier, even in English the word “day” is used with different meanings and just because in one place it means 24 hours does not mean it always does

    3. alfredo

      Ann: Are you sure that Yeshua was crucified on a Friday? Just because the next day was a Shabbat, doesn’t mean that it was a Friday. Actually, in John 19:31 you find that he points to a Shabbaton, a High Shabbat, a special one. Of course, after any Pesah there is a Shabbaton on the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. So, if Pesah on that particular year happened on a Wednesday, then Thursday would be a Shabbaton. This would give room for the women to go and buy spices on friday in order prepare Yeshua’s body, and it would solve a question that arises when you read Luke 23:55-56 and Mark 16:1, which is when did they go and bought the spices, before or after the Shabbat?

  14. gail jackson

    Words in the English language change over time such as let and replenish . This fact makes it more difficult to grasp what is written .

  15. gail jackson

    The Bible says Jesus was three days and three nights in the earth , so He could not have been crucified on Friday . I understand that “Good Friday” is a catholic tradition .

  16. Musonda

    The Gregorian calendar further removes us from considering dates biblical dates with the accuracy of the previous believers and bible writers yet God has not left his word unable help us. The Gregorian system has little relation to the calendar given to Moses by God beginning with the passover which to be celebrated on the same date every year as the beginning of the year. Hence we must rely on the word of God not our conjecture for all things not just dates.

    1. Debra Pearl


      Passover is not celebrated on the same day each year. The pagan Easter sometimes is celebrated before the Hebrew Passover. I think Jews begin their new year at the beginning of the new moon and the first fruits..something like hay or wheat on the side of a mountain. Then 40 days later PassoveR is celebrated and 40 or 50 days later there is another celebration..perhaps Pentecost. I’m not sure as I don” tknow the Bible but remember (I hope) from a lecture.

      1. Bill

        Debra, the Passover sacrifice is on the 14 of Abib, or Nissan, both names for the first Month of the Hebrew Calander. In second temple.period, the determination of when that month began was made by the Sanhedrin. When the temple.was destroyed in 70CE, this ability was reduced and eventually was supplanted in the 300’s by a direct calculation. Calculations were used by the Sanhedrin to VERIFY oy the claim of observation of a new moon. The new moon that designated the first month of the year was determined by the condition of the roads to Jerusalem, the availability of proper sacrificial animals, and the condition of the wild barley used to produce the Wave Sheaf offerings.

      2. Bill

        Currently the Karaites still maintain to the best of their ability the original (as Christ observed) observations and determinations for the first month of the year. The condition of the Barley is observed in the 12th month. If it is clear it will not be ready by the middle of the next month, then an additional ‘leap’ month is added to the existing year.

  17. Musonda

    I see so very interesting comments that I assume are sincere, Constantine was a pagan and changed the legal week and calendar hence the first day of modern is Monday, this separated the immediate natural connection with the biblical week beginning Sunday. Pagans did not automatically take rest days every as there is no reason but the one given by God, which Jesus said was made for man therefore our benefit for example in the north of Italy around Milan in Lombardia, people work 6 days a week and so shops and some businesses still take Monday /the morning off because working Saturday. Sunday is not counted as a normal working day, only now are things changing with the outer world.

  18. Ryan Blackwelder

    The phrase “Lord’s day” in Rev 1:10 is κυριακῆ ἡμέρα (kuriakē hēmera), whereas “day of the Lord” in the LXX passages is ἡμέρα κυρίου (hēmera kuriou). If John was referring to the “day of the Lord” in the LXX, then why did he refer to it as the “Lord’s day” rather than the expected and familiar form in the LXX? Was this a meaningful difference for John? It may not be coincidental that the only other use of κυριακος (kuriakos) in the NT (that I can find) is κυριακὸν δεῖπον (kuriakon deipon) in 1 Cor 11:20, meaning “Lord’s supper”. Thus perhaps “Lord’s day” may indeed mean “Jesus’ day,” and thus a reference to his death, resurrection, or ascension or to a regular celebration of it.

    1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

      Dear Ryan, first of all thank you for your thoughtful comment. I do not think that the difference you are noting is significant enough (Day of the Lord vs. Lord’s Day). Not to mention that NT writers’ familiarity and LXX quotations in NT do not mean that the author actually spoke in exactly the same way LXX translation rendered things. The text of Revelation in particular (due to it often irregular/mistaken Greek grammar) points to the Hebraic linguistic base (I don’t mean that Revelation was first written in Hebrew or Aramaic, but simply that in its oral stage it would have been existing in Hebrew or Aramaic instead.) You can read more about this argument here –
      Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

  19. Kat

    If the Day of the Lord is the end times would Alpha and Omega be a reference to this time period (Lord’s Day) rather than eternity?

  20. Bobbie Cole

    I think you are on to something with this, Dr. Eli. I’d assumed the Lord’s Day meant shabbat but your assertion seems far more likely. As far as date is concerned, since John was already serving John the Baptist before Jesus, he would have been really really old at the end of the century. For this reason, I prefer the Nero era estimate.

    1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

      Bobbie, I think that assertion that Lord’s Day means Shabbat is simply an overreaction to the Lord’s Day being Sunday :-). So yes, I am with you.

      1. Debra Pearl

        Dr. Eli…are you saying that I am incorrect in my comments? I don’t want to speak if I am putting out the wrong info as someone might think it truth.

        1. Prof. Peter Shirokov

          Dear Debra, there are a lot of teachings out there about changing Saturday to Sunday and etc. Not all of them are accurate, because they do not take into account that there were churches that did not follow what Constantine said or the bishop of Rome decided. Such churches were ostracized but they remained for centuries. The misconception is that Rome represented the entire world of Christ-followers and somehow had a monopoly. They certainly were the powerful majority, but pluralism that existed is ignored. People also often mix up the issues of Sunday and Easter change from 14th of Nissan (which can be any day of the week) to an actual Sunday. If this is important to you I encourage you o study the topic and hear from various sources to form your understanding.

  21. Guantai Stanley

    David on the issue of Patmos Island was Paul not imprisoned there?

    1. David Gibbons

      Guantai: I do not know where you get that idea from. Scripture only mentions Patmos in Revelation.

  22. Ann Johnstone

    Debra, Jesus rose from the dead very early in the morning on “the first day of the week” (John 20:1) – not the Jewish Sabbath, but the following day, our Sunday. He died at ‘the ninth hour’ (3pm) and was placed in the tomb just before the Passover Sabbath began, on “the day of preparation”. So Jesus died on the Friday afternoon (Day 1). Day 2 was the Sabbath. Day 3 was when Jesus rose from the dead – on the first day of the Jewish week – our Sunday. After Jesus’ resurrection his believers met together on the first day of the week (our Sunday) to worship – see
    Acts 20:7. However in Rom 14:5-8, and in Col 2:16, Paul says that it is not which day we meet but our attitude that is important.

    1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

      I think it is very important to understand (Ann I agree with you) that Paul wrote most of what he wrote to non-Jewish followers of Jesus to whom Acts 15 ruling applied.

    2. Edward Siders

      Ann——- Corect me if i am wrong and anyone else that may know . i do make mistakes ! —— in the beginning GOD called one day was 12hrs of day light and 12hrs. of night add them up you have 24hrs .3 days dead would be 72hrs. in all . acording to the newtestment Jesus would not have been dead that long .

      1. David Gibbons

        Edward, you make a very common mistake: Thinking that a word has a single, well-defined meaning. This is not true in any language that I know of (English, Koine Greek, French, Russian). Take the English meaning of “day”: It can, of course, mean 24 hours, but often it means less than that (and at times much more). For instance, if I say “I am going to London for the day” I most probably mean less than 24 hours, in fact, I could mean only 5-6 hours. If I say “I am going for 3 days” I might well mean only 48 hours or so.

        Thus when the bible talks about “3 days” it can perfectly well mean “part of day 1, all of day 2, and part of day 3”.

        1. Edward Siders

          David are you trying to tell me 12 hrs day and 12 hrs night is not well – defined ? if so explan please . mister SINCERE

          1. David Gibbons

            Edward, what I meant was not that 12 hours + 12 hours = 24 hours was not well defined, but that the word “day” has a range of related meanings, only one of which is “24 hours”. I have shown several examples i n English and, if they would help, could do the same in Greek.

            As for the Genesis account, it no-where mentions hours. In fact it does not even mention the whole 24 hours: “And there was evening and there was morning…”. No mention of the afternoon at all. It is the change of day that is significant.

            It is also a fairly recent thing to insist on a literal 24-hour day here: that it is a “day” as in “period” was accepted, or posited, at least as far back as Augustine (C4).

      2. Edward Siders

        Peter———— Can you show some light on my statement ? And thanks David for your coment .

        1. Prof. Peter Shirokov

          David is correct, Edward. In a western, modern, scientifically precise world people are used to precise and exact formulations like a day = 24 hours. But in the world in which the Bible was written and read it is a very different matter, estimations are much more common and numbers are not always precise.

    3. Bill Hawkins

      Ann, actually in the KJV, John 20:1 is rendered as “The first of the week, cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulcher, and seeth the stone taken away form the sepulcher.” The word ‘day’ is not in the original, as indicated by the word being type set in italics. Also, we are used to the Roman time keeping system of days starting at midnight. The Hebrews consistently used their system of the day starting at sunset. Therefore, in this verse, the first day of the week started on what we would call Saturday, at sunset, and Mary M. has showed up at the sepulcher after sundown some time, before sunup on the first day of the week.

    4. Bill Hawkins

      Further, since the day started at sunset, it cannot be stated that He rose in what we call the morning, meaning after midnight. We can state that He was already risen after Mary M arrived, while still dark, the first day of the week as reckoned by Hebrew methods, but this also fits with a sundown Wed burial and a sundown resurrection.

  23. Debra Pearl

    This makes me wonder…Where did Constantine get the idea to change the Sabbath to the Lord’s Day…a Sunday. From recent teachings I have learned about the Sabbath the day of rest that The Father gave to us…and that God never Christians should keep the Sabbath holy unto the Lord. Also Yeshua did not rise from the dead on Sunday but the Sabbath. And I think the Pope knows this so why doesn’t he change this? Because tradition is strong with the Catholics even if wrong. I know as I used to be one. I think I would have problems on a tour to Isreal. They’d probably ask me to leave the tour I have a big mouth when it comes to Biblical truth..

    1. David Gibbons

      Debra, it was not Constantine who changed the day, that happened a long time before he came along. Justin Martyr, writing about 150 A.D. says that the Christians met early on Sunday. And before him, Ignatius, bishop os Syrian Antioch (98-117 A.D.) wrote “Those, then, who lived by ancient practices arrived at a new hope. They ceased to keep the Sabbath and lived by the Lord’s Day, on which our life as well as theirs shone forth, thanks to Him and His death.” (1 Magnesians 9:1)

      So it is clear that the change to Sunday happened within a generation of Jesus’ death and has absolutely nothing to do with Constantine, the Pope, or Catholicism (though it is a very common error).

      1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

        Yes. I agree, David. Although it must be clarified that the change (Sunday) was first of all was gradual in that Sabbath and Sunday was first observed together (in some eastern church traditions it is still observed together). The change was not universal and it (absolute Sunday only) change was true only of non-Jewish forms of Christ-following movement. Jewish Christ-followers never quited keeping the Sabbath as holy (even if they also commemorated Christ resurrection on the first day of the Jewish week).

    2. Edward Siders

      Debra——– I have the same problem about Biblical truths . I also ask questions no one wants to answer . I have even been called the DEVIL and the antichrist .

  24. adan barrios c

    roots of words maybe change during this period time if scientific also roots try to be civil in trips.

  25. David Gibbons

    Dr. Eli, you state that “His exile was on the island of Patmos, where the Roman government was known to send political prisoners.” but is this, in fact, true? John himself makes no reference to being in exile. His statement that he was there “because of the word of God and the testimony about Jesus” could just as easily mean he was on a missionary journey.

    As I recall, there is very little, if any, evidence of Patmos being used as a place of exile outside of the later Christian tradition, and certainly no external (to the Christian tradition) evidence of John being sent there. Do you know of any, or is this just the second/third century traditions being taken as true?

    1. Prof. Peter Shirokov

      Since Dr. Eli did not answer yet, if you do not mind, David, I will chime in. You have a good point. The “exile” is a tradition. There is little evidence from Roman sources that Patmos area was a place for exile. We know Romans did this to “politically dangerous” people. There are some patristic references to exile of John. For some this is not enough, for others that is sufficient to accept the tradition. It is possible that John was there for his own reasons and not confined and that later history recast him as the martyr. He does however mention persecution explicitly. Either way this does not change the message of the book itself. Good point…

      1. David Gibbons

        Thank you Peter. I was mostly trying to find out if my memory was correct (it is many years since I studied this).

        It is true that John mentions persecution, but he is mentioning it as something that unites him with his readers in Asia Minor and not as the reason he is on Patmos. He links it with the Kingdom and perseverance, so it would be equally viable, in my opinion, to make the spread of the Kingdom his reason for being on Patmos.

        It may well be that the early tradition is correct, but I try to always question such things: I find too many Christians who believe things that may well not be true simply because they have heard it or read it (or read it into Scripture even).

        1. Prof. Peter Shirokov

          I think questioning assumptions is a good method. I am there with you. I love tradition, but it is just tradition. Most people have hard time drawing the line between tradition and concrete facts. Much of our reading of the Bible is “traditional” even by those who would normally reject tradition. Take the Masoretic vowels in Hebrew, for example… tradition. Take them away and meaning can be different. But there is much unknown out there and often tradition fills in the vacuum. It is the same in Judaism and Christianity.

          1. Edward Siders

            thanks PETER————- i needed that . lells me to prove all things before i believe it to be true.

          2. Dr. Yaya

            Prof. I agree with you. An example is v’yirdu and radah in Gen.126.
            The tension still exists between rabbinic reading and those who rely on Strongs.
            Dr. Yaya

        2. judith green

          Your doubts about the “exile” of John to Patmos are well-founded, as Prof. Shirokov notes. Patmos was actually a rather flourishing island in Hellenistic and Roman times, and known for its sanctuaries to the gods, especially Diana (Artemis). This may support John’s choice of the island for proselytizing, as you suggest. The Greek of verse 9 is ambiguous, διά τον λογον του θεου could just as well mean he was there “for the sake of the word of God”. i see no ancient evidence for it being an island of exile. What is peculiar is his emphasizing it as an “island called Patmos”, i.e. as a rather unknown place even to an audience in Asia Minor.

          1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

            I love learning from all of you, guys! Thank you for being a part of this forum!

          2. Prof. Peter Shirokov

            Excellent point – διά τον λογον του θεου can be understood in many ways. “because of the word of God” as in “persecution connected with the word of God” is but one option.

        3. judith green

          New book on the subject of Patmos: Patmos in the Reception HIstory of the Apocalypse, by Ian Boxall, Oxford University Press, 2013. It is also available as an eBook. I haven’t seen it, but I’m sure it has a great deal of new information and insight.

    2. Drs. Charles van den Berg

      The Christian tradition came to this conclusion because John said he was in on the island of Patmos “tribulation”. Rev. 1:9
      So it is possible that the tradition is based on truth.

  26. Dr. Stefano Giliberti

    Dear Dr. Eli,

    I agree absolutely with your interpretation of “The Lord’s day” in Rev. 1:10a, which is mine too.
    Very deep insight, indeed: congratulations!!!

    1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

      Thank you for your kind words.

  27. Isaac Mzinyane

    The Hebree termiinology has cleared a lot of. Misnterpretation. Yah is revealiing Himself to us non-Jewish people too as the only Elohim n showing that there one Torah for all who choose His salvation Yahushuwah My children n I have made our teshuva n chose the El of Israel for all eternity. Thanx, Baruch HaShem Abba Yahuwah.

    1. Dr. Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg

      Isaac, welcome to our forum.